Question related to Bible.

India
April 14, 2011 1:12am CST
Following is "Genesis 1:26": Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground." The question that I've is, why it is written as "Let us .... our ...", why not "Let me .... my ..."?? Please share your opinion regarding this. Thanks!
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6 responses
@gfeef01 (538)
14 Apr 11
The Christian tradition see's one God in many parts, the Father Son and Spirit, modern translations use the 'we' partly to signify that God the father in not the only part of the trinty present at creation.
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• India
30 Apr 11
Thanks for your response, gfeef01. I didn't know about the trinity. I got the answer of my question.
@DaDukeee (75)
• Romania
14 Apr 11
This is actually a very interesting post.I for one don't put that much faith in the Bible because it has lots of "mistakes" to say and it's very dependent on the manner you interpret it.It is told that Adam and Eve has 3 children:Cain,Abel and Seth,the nr of children they had is unimportant what is important is that they share the same blood therefor how did the population multiply.Is this why we are all brothers not because we are GOD's creation and their creation.Religion is a mass manipulation weapon,the church had killed in the name of GOD and his son Jesus and that is blasphemy.It's not like a don't believe,I do to a certain point but GOD didn't make the Bible did and they as all may know can be wicked at times.Sorry for the semi-off topic post I will come back to see what others have to say on the why us and not me.
• India
14 Apr 11
Hi DaDukeee, You shouldn't be sorry about your opinion, it's good to see that you've honestly shared your opinion and I do agree with you to some extent. Even I had heard someone explaining this difference (us instead of me) in context to some other topic and that was much more logical than any other concept or theory I have ever come across regarding this. Thanks for your response.
@owlwings (40004)
• Cambridge, England
14 Apr 11
One explanation may be that, in King James' time (and still today) it was the custom for the monarch to use the plural first person pronouns ('We' instead of 'I', &c) when referring to himself or herself. This is similar to the customary use of the second person plural ('You' rather than 'Thee') when addressing someone formally (the singular form was considered familiar and rude and only to be used among family, close friends and to inferiors). The translators, naturally, wish to imply that God is royalty (the ultimate royalty, of course), so they translated His words using the 'royal We'. The custom of using the first person plural is quite widespread and does not only occur in English. I don't know if the Hebrew also makes that distinction but it could be that it is actually an accurate translation from that as well.
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• India
14 Apr 11
As usual simple, logical and easy to understand explanation of the question. Thanks for your response, owlwings.
@1hopefulman (34722)
• Canada
30 Apr 11
The reason is that when God created Adam He was no longer alone. He had already created a junior partner and companion. If you read Proverbs chapter eight carefully you will discover some interesting information. Notice verse twenty-two: Proverbs 8:22 (Young's Literal Translation)22Jehovah possessed me -- the beginning of His way, Before His works since then. Proverbs 8:22 (New International Version, ©2011) 22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, before his deeds of old; So God was talking to his first creation, his son (Jesus Christ). Notice two verse thirty: Proverbs 8:30 (Young's Literal Translation) 30Then I am near Him, a workman, And I am a delight -- day by day. Rejoicing before Him at all times, Proverbs 8:30 (American Standard Version) 30 Then I was by him, as a master workman; And I was daily his delight, Rejoicing always before him, Understanding this, it will help you understand other verses such as: Colossians 1:13-17 (New International Version, ©2011) 13 For he has rescued us from the dominion of darkness and brought us into the kingdom of the Son he loves, 14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins. 15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16 For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. Revelation 3:14 (King James Version) 14And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God; I hope this helps!
1 person likes this
• United States
22 Apr 11
This verse focuses on one of the basic doctrines in Christianity: the trinity. The original word in that verse is Elohim which is plural. The Trinity was involved in creation. In other parts of the Bible the oneness of God is emphasized, thus the doctrine God is one God but three persons.
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@nerein (283)
• United States
15 Apr 11
Now when it comes to why it says let us make man in our image, in our likeness it ultimately comes down to a matter of opinion. Although me personally I have to agree with the whole holy trinity thing. The Father The Son and The Holy Ghost. Now as well it could be talking about god and all of the angels in the Kingdom of Heaven as well. Cause after all God created the Heavens and the Earth and all of the angels that reside in the Kingdom of Heaven. But like I said ultimately it comes down to a matter of opinion. I mean believe it or not there are some people who believe that God and the angels that are in the Kingdom of Heaven are a race of aliens and that they scientifically engineered us after there own likeness. Strange but some people believe that it is true and that it happened that way, but to each there own opinion.
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