mathematics puzzle

February 16, 2007 9:18am CST
can any one prove from 1=1 to 1=2
2 people like this
5 responses
@aash63 (75)
• India
26 Mar 07
according to mathematics "(a^2)-(b^2)=(a+b)(a-b)" substituting a with b; (a^2)-(a^2)=(a+a)(a-a) take a out side from lhs; a(a-a)=(a+a)(a-a) cancel (a-a) there for a=a+a give a value 1 1=1+1 that is 1=2 proved....
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@kamran12 (5555)
• Pakistan
26 Mar 07
(a^2)-(b^2)=(a+b)(a-b) holds only good for real and distinct values of a and b. so it's falwed:-)
1 person likes this
26 Mar 07
the above solution is on my line but with a flaw that stands close to Kmaran's comment. It is in substituting a=b not for performing equal operation. We can not just replace 2=3 than it would have nothing to prove at all our puzzle; 1=2 from 1=1. But we can say performa mathematical equal operation like adding up a certain value to both of the sides. Now, thanks again for your response but may place another request? You have started with algebric notation that also stands equal though but with the basic flaw of all in this particular case, that you haven't started from 1=1. again thank you for your participation.
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17 Aug 08
just to give a hint if nay interested. 1=1 -2=-2 (multiplying both wth -2) 1-3=4-6 and so on
@cheyuta (25)
• India
16 Feb 07
1 = 1 1x0 = 1x0 0 = 0 1x0 = 2 x 0 So 1 = 2 QED
18 Feb 07
the fourth line is not following rules of solving equation. you just cannot perform any unequal operation on both the side of an equation.
1 person likes this
@mythmoh (3986)
• United States
21 Feb 07
when you are multiplying by 1 on both sides then why you are using 2 on right hand side and 1 on left hand side.so it is not following the commutative law.if there is statement that 0 equals to any number mulitplied by 0 then it may be correct.
1 person likes this
@missak (3311)
• Spain
21 Apr 07
In the last step, you are dividing both sides by 0, which is not a real mathematical operation since the result is an INDETERMINATION or a mathematical incongrence (what will you give each when you share something between zero persons?).
• Philippines
24 Mar 07
wow! lots of mathematicians here!
1 person likes this
• India
20 Feb 07
I think it is impossible to prove that 1=2 without breaking any of the rules in mathematics.
1 person likes this
• Philippines
24 Mar 07
wow! lots of mathematicians here! i admire you all...