What does "Regulate Interstate Commerce" mean in the US Constitution?

@ParaTed2k (22940)
Sheboygan, Wisconsin
October 14, 2011 12:59pm CST
Probably the most abused and misused line in the US Constitution, the "Commerce Clause" authorizes the federal government to regulate commerce that crosses state lines. Since the law requires all bills to be justified constitutionally, crooked, ignorant or just plain lazy legislators type "the commerce clause" on all bills when they can't justify the bill honestly. But the clause is in there, so there must be legitimate use of it. There is! There is no authority for the federal government to regulate commerce that happens within the borders of a single state... none, nada.. end of sentence. That authority rests solely with the state, and people of the state. But since no state has the authority to regulate anything crossing state lines, We the People have assigned that to the federal government. But proving to the world why they need to be held to severe limits, the people working in the federal government will beg, borrow and steel, as well as lie through their pearly whites in order to defraud the US Constitution and We the People any chance they get. So they invent authority, or twist the meaning of "interstate commerce" to fit their lusts. Production happening in one state is NOT interstate commerce. On the other hand, production happening in more than one state is. Let's take Harley Davidson for example. Their headquarters is in Milwaukee, WI, but they have plants in Ohio, Pennsylvania, and other states. Ohio and Pennsylvania have no authority to make laws for Milwaukee, so these states can't regulate what Harley does at the corporate level . Since the commerce goes on in more than one state, the federal government can set regulations, as long as those regulations do not violate federal or state laws.. or the US Constitution. On the other hand, since each plant is in the borders of each state, the federal government has NO authority to regulate the commerce Harley does that only happens within each state. The government can't regulate policies where Harley leaders allows the local plant leadership autonomy. Since those policies do not cross state lines. Once something is sold by Harley to a third party, then it is sold. Harley has nothing to do with it. So a load of bikes sold to a distributor in (say) Illinois only falls under "Interstate Commerce" when they are exported to Illinois. If the dealer who buys them only has dealerships in Illinois, no interstate commerce is going on... so it's HANDS OFF! to the federal government. We the People can only enforce the US Constitution if we understand it. We can't just sit around expecting the people in government to be honest.
1 person likes this
2 responses
@bobmnu (8157)
• United States
14 Oct 11
One interpertation of what the intent was so that state A could not make state B pay a tariff to export products to State A. Basicly you were to have Free Trade between states not so that the government could control everything that happens in this country. The major court decision in this clause was, I beleive, during the FDR Administration when the Federal Government was expanding its power and the case before the Supereme Court was trying to limit what the Federal Government could do. When it looked like the court would rule against the government FDR threatened to increase the number of justices on the court and pack it with people who would support him. In the battle between the two branches of government the Court blinked first. A good look at the Commerce Clause can be found at http://www.redcounty.com/node/30655
@dragon54u (31633)
• United States
14 Oct 11
That's an excellent explanation, simple and to the point, and I hope everyone reads it. In fact, it's such a simple concept that even the Feds could understand it--if they wanted to.