the children of mary

Brazil
April 30, 2007 1:53pm CST
the catholics say that mary is always virgin, but the brothers of jesus? the bible show a lot of brother of jesus! what you think of this? antonio valmir
4 responses
@DeenaD (2684)
• United States
30 Apr 07
Then why did Jesus give her to John as his mother from the cross? ("Son, behold your mother" and "Woman, behold your son.") This would have been an odd thing to do, if Mary had other children that could have taken care of her.
• Brazil
2 May 07
The my bible say that Jesus´brothers don´t believe it. Thank you
• United States
1 Jun 07
In Hebrew and Aramaic, there is no word for cousin. A more precise translation would be kin. The words "brother" and "brethren" are used so many times and for different meanings. Mark 6:3 speaks of the brothers of Jesus, James and Joseph. John 19:25, Matt 27:56, and Mark 15:47 identify the mother of James and Joseph as Mary the wife of Clopas, so they couldn't be the blood brothers of Jesus.
@Mickie30 (2626)
30 Apr 07
Mary was a virgin "Mary the mother of Jesus was a woman who was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace. Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that it something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God, just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “…and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior…” Mary recognized that she needed to be saved, that she needed God as her Savior. The Bible never says that Mary was anyone but an ordinary human female whom God chose to use in a extraordinary way. Yes, Mary was a righteous woman and favored (graced) by God (Luke 1:27-28). At the same time, Mary was also a sinful human being just like everyone else – who needed Jesus Christ as her Savior, just like everyone else (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23 1 John 1:8)." http://www.gotquestions.org/virgin-Mary.html
• Brazil
30 Apr 07
I agree fully to you.God blesses you. And thank you very much. Antonio Valmir
• United States
1 Jun 07
Absolutely Mary needed grace from God. She received it at her conception. The Greek word is kecharitomene. It is a perfect passive participle meaning that Mary was "full of grace" resulting from a past event. Exactly how much grace is "much grace"? Did she need just a little, a lot, or somewhere in between, to give birth and raise the Son of God? Catholics belive she was completely filled leaving no room for sin. It seems logical to me that the womb of our Lord remain sinless. Jesus was her Savior. It was only because of Jesus that God filled Mary with grace.
@cook4t7 (202)
• United States
1 Jun 07
They get this Virgin tradition from Isaiah but if you check it out Bethula is Hebrew for virgin and in Isaiah the Hebrew translation is for young women and the prophecy there in Isaiah if you read on is toward Isaiah himself Immanuel is Isaiah's son read the next page, besides did any one call Jesus by Immanuel not that I've read but they said they would something don't fair out.
@cook4t7 (202)
• United States
1 Jun 07
They get this Virgin tradition from Isaiah but if you check it out Bethula is Hebrew for virgin and in Isaiah the Hebrew translation is for young women and the prophecy there in Isaiah if you read on is toward Isaiah himself Immanuel is Isaiah's son read the next page, besides did any one call Jesus by Immanuel not that I've read but they said they would something don't fair out.