Oklahoma voter say no to Sharia Law
By bobmnu
@bobmnu (8157)
United States
November 10, 2010 12:43am CST
A Judge has ruled among other things that the proposition has the state giving preference to one religion over another (Establishment of Religion). In a discussion with a friend he said that the First Amendment prevents the government for establishing a religion. When I read the Constitution and the First Amendment starts out by saying "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" It does not say that the state can not establish a religion or allow the public expression of religion.
Amendment 1 - Freedom of Religion, Press, Expression. Ratified 12/15/1791.
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
Do you think the Courts have overstepped their duty by restricting the states based on the limits placed on the Federal Government?
1 person likes this
3 responses
@djbtol (5493)
• United States
11 Nov 10
From what I understood, Oklahoma was trying to be pro-active on this one. No, I don't think the judge has a solid position, but in a politically correct world all you have to do is say First Amendment and everybody runs.
Without going back to read up on it, I remember the people of Oklahoma were just saying that Sharia law is not going to be their law. This is a really good thing, and more states should look at it.
It seems to me that with the Muslim/Islam situation, you cannot just look at it as a religious issue. The cultural and religious factors are all tied together, unlike the U.S., where many people are able to put all religion in a box in the back of the closet.
We do not want Sharia law, and if anyone wants to argue that, I'll go dig up the recent legal decision that says it is OK for a husband to beat his wife, as long as there are no permanent scars.
@Destiny007 (5805)
• United States
12 Nov 10
Yes. The 1st Amendment applies only to Congress and specifically names Congress.
This is just more of a long line of out of control judicial activism.
@Destiny007 (5805)
• United States
16 Nov 10
I know why they put that law in there... the judge overturning it overstepped his bounds just as they did over Proposition 8 which is now part of California's Constitution, and therefore immune from a constitutional challenge.
@flowerchilde (12529)
• United States
11 Nov 10
It sure is funny how "and the free exercise thereof" has gotten so lost in the shuffle.. Of course that phrase does not cover Sharia Law, which is the exercising of taking freedom from a whole lot of others..
