Was it blasphemous for the pope to declare that he is infallible in the 11th C

Well then if not blasphemy, hubris? It is a strange claim since later popes have reversed earlier ones, kind of disproves infallibility all the best urban

Oh, I'm not denying blasphemy - I just gave my opinion without researching it thoroughly. This doctrine was defined dogmatically by the First Vatican Council of 1870. Actually, quite a few Catholics didn't accept it back then, they seperated themselves into what was known as the Old Catholic Church. Quite a few still do not, according to recent surveys covering catholics in 12 countries, they showed that 36.9% accepted the dogma of papal infallibility, 36.9% denied it, and 26.2% said they didn't know. According to Catholic theology, to the extent that their rejection of a dogma is deliberate, they separate themselves from the Church and are no longer members of the Body of Christ. In the case of the laymen it is plausible that they are ignorant to the point that they are not culpable; Catholic theology does teach, however, that it is a duty to be familiar with the details of one's faith (e.g. 1 Pet 3:15). The Church of England and its sister churches in the Anglican Communion reject papal infallibility, as do other Protestant churches, a rejection given expression in the Thirty-Nine Articles of Religion (1571)