How Can Jesus Claim to Pay for Our Sins?
@mythociate (21437)
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma
November 24, 2012 11:43pm CST
The Quran (004.112) "But if any one earns a fault or a sin and throws it on to one that is innocent, He carries (on himself) (Both) a falsehood and a flagrant sin."
Really Gabriel? Even with the spirit Allah granted Him, with (I would assume) Allah's very-own powers within it (as Jesus said, 'I do nothing but what I see the Father do before me'), Allah can't extend to us a scapegoat---one man to pay the penalty for our disobedience.
1 response
@chrystalia (1208)
• Tucson, Arizona
25 Nov 12
I beg to differ, here-- if you THROW your sin on someone else-- meaning an innocent person without their consent-- then you're guilty twice over. However, I believe there would be an exception if someone VOLUNTEERED to take your sin for you (though the garden at Gethsemane makes it clear to me Jesus wasn't exactly enthusiastic about the whole crucifixion thing). Then the question becomes, where in the Bible does G-d make a provision for someone to voluntarily take the sin of another?
When you find it, in the Old testament (The Original Rules count, you know), let me know. It goes without saying visiting your sin on someone without their consent, an innocent, is seriously wrong--but I wonder about Jesus being a special case, or can we find instances elsewhere where someone was allowed to (and told to) be a scapegoat?
1 person likes this
@mythociate (21437)
• Oklahoma City, Oklahoma
18 Dec 12
That word "scapegoat" reminds me of the practice of sin-offerings---how--to get their guilt off (or something)--they would 'put it all on the animal' (usually a virgin lamb) and kill IT in their stead.
Tells me why it's important that Jesus was 'not exactly human'---so that He was Our property (given by G*d with the whole world) and -He could thus be spent 'in our stead.'
