Who was speaking to Jesus from the heavens at Matthew 3:17?

United States
July 30, 2016 4:26pm CST
Was Jesus throwing his voice like a ventriliquist to make it appear that God was speaking from the heavens? No, because the scriptures say that "no deception" was found in Jesus' mouth. Who was Jesus fervently praying to at Hebrews 5:7, himself or to His heavenly Father?
2 people like this
3 responses
• Philippines
31 Jul 16
I believe that it is obvious - the heavenly Father. What I would like to know is what truly is the point of all your posts regarding Jesus Christ? I respect your doctrinal position that you consider Jesus Christ as just a man and not God. That's for you. For me, its different. Therefore, let us allow God to judge us in the day of His judgment. What we can do is become salt and light in this world to make it a better place for some, and for others to come to the knowledge of the Truth.
• United States
31 Jul 16
I consider Jesus not only as a perfect man, but foremost, I consider Jesus the "only begotten" son of Jehovah God. The point of my posts when referring to Jesus Christ is to set the record straight by using the Bible to prove that God is not Jesus and Jesus is not God...... Through my posts concerning Jesus Christ and other Bible truths I am sharing spiritual light with others. I do not force others to believe what I believe I simply am a messenger of the good news according to the gospel at Matthew 24:14. A significant part of that good news is about Jesus Christ who is God's son, and the truth that Jesus is not God. My thoughts and expressions are based on the Bible and use of illustrations if need be....I also, respect your decision to believe in the Trinity because that is your choice. I on the other hand choose to believe the opposite based on the Scriptures.
• Canada
31 Jul 16
If you actually want a real answer to your question, if you want to really know why we believe this, then I will answer-I am answering as a clergyman-and this is the answer which any schooled Anglican/Catholic/Orthodox would give; Jesus was talking to the Father. If that sounds like a surprsing answer, it is because here you are kind of confusing a subject here-Trinitarian teaching does not say Jesus is the same person as the Father. That is a heresy called Modalism. However, your question is somewhat superficial, because in asking it, you are prematurely excluding and ignoring how the New Testament would takes Old Testament passages, which are speaking of Yahweh, and applies them to Jesus-(one which explicitly refers to Yahweh's creating the universe)-or something like how Jesus can refer to Himself by an Old Testament name of God "I am the First and the Last" (Revelation)-an Old Testament name of Yahweh, which is explicitly meant to refer to Him as the Primal Being. Those verses exist and that is a fact-and Trinitarians who believe them are not watering them down, not distorting them, and to say, as many JW's do of us, that we don't know the Bible, is frankly dismissive. Btw, if you are curious about what the Greek term "Only Begotten Son" means, then you may wish to look at my post on the subject-it may not mean what you think it does-but there I look at the term historically, as well as the doctrine itself.
1 person likes this
@clrumfelt (5597)
• Tennessee Ridge, Tennessee
30 Jul 16
It was his Heavenly Father in both instances. The human mind cannot explain away God's greatness, though it might try. God is not a magician, a ventriloquist or in any way a deceiver. He is Truth.
1 person likes this