Why did San Antonio play Phoenix in the 2nd round?
June 17, 2007 7:40pm CST
Okay, can somebody clear this up for me. In the second round of both the eastern and western conferences, (seeds) 2 played 3 and 4 played 8. In the eastern 1 played 6 and 2 played 5. But in the first round it was a different set up. How'd they chose who played who?
• United States
18 Jun 07
It has to do with bracketing. The NBA does not re-seed after every round. The playoff brackets look like this: #1 v. #8 #4 v. #5 and #2 v. #7 #3 v. #6 it usually is because you want #1 v. #4 and #2 v. #3 in a perfect world. Of course, the West ended up with the #2, #3, #4, and #8 won. With the brackets already pre-sorted, #2. Phoenix played #3 San Antonio, while #4 Utah played #8 Golden State.
1 person likes this
22 Jun 07
the new rules in the nba about bracketing is that they disregard the teams final standings, if one team is the leader of their division that team will automatically become one the top 4 seed in the playoffs regardless of their standings. for example at the western conference.. the houston are 52-30 and the jazz are 51-31. houston is at third place third place behind dallas and san antonio at the southwest division but the utah are in 1st place at the northwest division so the jazz became the 4th seed at the playoffs but when the jazz and rockets met at the first round the rockets take the homecourt advantage because of their standings against the jazz. i think they will change this rules this season, the playoff seedings will be based on the teams standings.