On what basis the six that sehwag hits haven't count..?
19 Aug 10
Hello SILIGURI, Don't get confused my friend.I hope i can explain to you.When SHEWAG was on 99* the INDIAN team required only one run to reach their target.So the SRILANKANS have planned to bowl a no ball .If they bowl a no ball then the INDIAN team reaches its target.Even if SHEWAG hits six ,it won't be counted.Because the required run was only one.He was unlucky at that time.This is not a good rule from the ICC.They should change the rule.
20 Aug 10
Do not follow what is written on webpages here and there or what people are saying, if we use our common sense we can say that it is a wrong decision. I will explain it. Example 1: Okay, it was a No ball. What if Sehwag had have missed it and Sangakkara had have removed the bells. I am sure that you know the answer that umpires would have declared Sehwag as out! Example 2: Suppose if that was not a No ball and India needs 1 run to win, Sehwag hits a boundary and while the ball is reaching the boundary, they start running. By the time the ball crosses the boundary, they take 2 runs. How many runs will be counted in this case? (Obviously 4 runs) Also, if you remember, after he hit the last ball out of the boundary, the umpire signaled Six, why?
19 Aug 10
hai, friend. its very unfair decision happened with viru. the ball was counted on the no:of balls he faced, but not the run he scored on it. you can know it in detail if you go through the given discussion link http://www.mylot.com/w/discussions/2378968.aspx