Is infant baptism supported by the Bible?

By JB
India
June 1, 2009 1:35pm CST
In all accounts of the Bible that mention baptisms, there are only accounts of adults being baptised. On what basis, then, are babies baptized? Also, why is only water sprinkled on them? "A Greek-English Lexicon" by Liddell and Scott states that the word "baptise" comes from the Greek "ba-pti'zein", meaning "to dip, to plunge."
1 response
coolcoder
@coolcoder (2018)
• United States
1 Jun 09
Thus Peter declared,"Repent, and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. For the promise is to you and to your children" (Acts 2:38–39). The apostolic Church baptized whole "households" (Acts 16:33; 1 Cor. 1:16), a term encompassing children and infants as well as servants. While these texts do not specifically mention—nor exclude—infants, the very use of the term "households" indicates an understanding of the family as a unit. Even one believing parent in a household makes the children and even the unbelieving spouse "holy" (1 Cor. 7:14). Irenaeus "He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God: infants, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for infants, sanctifying infants; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age" (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 189]). These are just a few examples showing that infant baptism as well as adult baptism was practiced. :) Happy MyLotting!
JB
@joynatarajan (332)
• India
1 Jun 09
Acts 2:38, 39: The promise was extended to families and their children - agreed. But it was not offered to babies. The verse also continues that "the promise is to you and to your children and to all those afar off". This implies that it was extended to those close to them and those afar off. 1 Cor 1:16: There is no indication that there were infants baptized here. Besides, baptizm in the first century was done by immersion. Why, then, is sprinkling of water done now? 1 Cor 7:14: This verse only speaks of the husband and wife. No where does it speak of the children. Also, if every unbelieving person in the family makes the whole family holy, then how is it that each person will have his own accountability before God? (Romans 14:12) Heresies 2:22:4: I dont recall this coming into any part of the Holy Scriptural cannon, and, as such, is disputable. Happy mylotting :)