If Jesus Christ Was God's "Only Begotten Son," What Was Adam?
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma
December 1, 2014 4:31pm CST
John 3:16 is an example of a Scripture-bit taken out-of-context & applied as the basis of a teaching. The context most people place it in is that of 'another proverb from a book of wisdom'---like it's just an out-&-out fact, written by St. John to deliver the message of The Gospel. ... and maybe it is a fact, just not the "fact" that people take it for. They 'take it' as saying that "Jesus Christ came to Earth to redeem the world & make it worthy of His Father God." If that's the truth you understand, you should probably stop reading here The correct context is 'that Jesus Himself (still alive at the time) is explaining to a fellow Jew why the sacrifice-process is all-wrong,' much the way I try to explain/discuss how the typical Christians' "headed for Heaven or headed for Hell"-picture of a human's timeline is all-wrong. But what did He mean by "only begotten son"? I don't know the original text, but the definition of beget is "bring into existence by the process of reproduction: give rise to; bring about." I remember St. Paul writing that he 'begat' new followers into the church, so (assuming the Bible uses the same meaning of 'begat' throughout) we can guess that Jesus wasn't talking about 'the process of reproduction' but rather -about 'giving rise to' a man's decision to take God's Will as his own (as if God were his father). John 3:16 was 'Jesus explaining that the world is ours AS IF God gave up his royal-lineage to adopt us into his family!' That Jesus died, rose again & ascended into Heaven simply shows that He wasn't lying?
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