Ok, here's an open question, I don't have an answer to... yet...

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Does the fact that a 'racially charged statement' mean that a case should be looked at, or a sentence changed? http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/world-us-canada-14935191 [b]The lawyers of a man facing execution in Texas have made a last-minute plea to Governor Rick Perry, saying his sentence was "tainted" by race issues. Duane Buck, 48, shot and killed his ex-girlfriend Debra Gardner, 32, and Kenneth Butler, 33, in 1995. But lawyers say a psychologist who testified that black men were more likely to pose a future public threat may have influenced his sentencing.[/b] Ok, so this guy clearly shot and killed his ex-girlfriend, and I would randomly assume her boyfriend. Now.... he is clearly a murderer. As far as I'm concerned, he's a murderer and therefore he should die. It's that simple in my world. But then we have this statement that 'black men are more likely to pose a future public threat'. Ok... so... should the case be thrown out? Should the guy be set free? I'm missing the point of this. Other than an election coming up, and if Rick Perry refuses, then people can accuse him of being racists, especially given his opponent, and alternatively if he signs off, then people will accuse him of letting a murderer go. Yes, it does smell like politics to me. And by the way, is the statement in question true? Is a black man in general more or less likely to commit crime? Or does whether the statement is true matter? See, what confuses me is.... they are not arguing at all about whether he did the crime. And since they are not arguing that, then what difference does the statement make? Confused.